What do you think?

[John Ruggero]

http://www.henle.de/blog/en/2018/02/26/ ... #more-4808

Anyone think Mendelssohn actually wrote the F and why?
If not, should it appear in the main text of an Urtext edition?

[David Ward]

An interesting conundrum…

[OCTO]

Interesting. It should be investigated if Mendelssohn indeed had influence in the first edition's print or not.

[John Ruggero]

According to the article, Mendelssohn made particularly extensive changes and careful corrections in the proof copies for the first editions. For that reason, they are taking this measure very seriously.

Anyone have an opinion about the note? Would Mendelssohn have actually written such a note?

[Schonbergian]

I doubt it personally, based on the textural context, the existence of the F in the bassline already, and the resulting discomfort for pianists. It makes little sense on musical grounds.

[John Ruggero]

based on the textural context, the existence of the F in the bassline already, and the resulting discomfort for pianists. It makes little sense on musical grounds.

I agree totally. And since it isn't in the first French edition published around the same time, or any other edition at IMSLP, these editors agree. Even the author of the article has nothing but bad things to say about the note.

The only thing it has going for it is that it appeared in the first German edition that was proofread by the composer, and it's in the harmony. And on this basis, it will be printed in the main text of the new Henle edition. Forget musical logic, pianistic awkwardness, the composer's style, and, above all, try to forget what it actually sounds like, because it is AWFUL.

I think that this is music editing gone mad.